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Exam Code: 3M0-200
Exam Name: 3COM (3COM 3M0-200)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
A. SICs only
B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
Answer: B

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NO.2 True or False: The RPU can be hot swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.5 True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot
swapped.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: IIA (Certification in Control Self-Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 270 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Competency refers to:
A. External auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
B. Internal auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
C. Reduce or prevent manufacturing defects
D. Provide information about the process capability and maturity with standards.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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NO.5 When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their
judgment, this refers to:
A. Veracity
B. Authenticity
C. Integrity
D. Accuracy
Answer: C

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NO.6 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.9 The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater
monitoring and continuous improvements due to:
A. Accountability for control
B. Measuring methodology
C. Evaluation methodology
D. Self-assessment methodology
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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NO.12 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a
structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

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NO.15 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ICYB
Exam Name: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our
processes between “what is” and __________________.
A. “What isn’t”
B. “What will make money”
C. “What will cost less”
D. “What should be”
Answer: D

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NO.2 Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project
yields
monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 4.17
B. 8.33
C. 11.33
D. 28.28
Answer: C

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NO.3 Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?
A. Voice of the Customer
B. Voice of the Employee
C. Voice of the Business
D. Voice of the Process
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y , the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are
the
__________ variables.
A. Independent, dependent
B. Individual, multiple
C. Sole, multiple
D. Dependent, independent
Answer: D

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NO.5 Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6
Standard
Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one
of
the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than
________ defects per million opportunities.
A. 1.7
B. 2.6
C. 3.4
D. 10
Answer: C

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NO.8 The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and
Control.
A. Manage
B. Measure
C. Memorize
D. Manipulate
Answer: B

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NO.9 Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes
of
a product or service.
A. Desirable
B. Beneficial
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. Preferred
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a
product?
A. Functionality
B. Durability
C. Dependability
D. None
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IBMSPSSMPRO
Exam Name: SPSS (IBM SPSS Modeler Professional Certification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which outlier treatment is not available in the Quality tab of the Data Audit output?
A. Coerce
B. Nullify
C. Recode
D. Discard
Answer: C

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NO.2 The set Random seed option on the sample node is required if you want to draw the same
random sample with the same records more than once.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Generally speaking, to modify values in columns of working data file, you would use nodes
from which palette or menu group?
A. Record Ops
B. Field Ops
C. Export
D. Sources
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal)
fields? (Select all that apply)
A. Means node
B. Matrix node
C. Distribution node
D. Table node
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which mode is not available In the Auto Numeric node?
A. Chaid
B. Logistic
C. Neural Net
D. Regression
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CTP
Exam Name: AFP (Certified Treasury Professional )
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Total Q&A: 612 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An instrument that gives the right to buy a stated number of shares of common stock at a specified price
is known as:
A. an equity warrant
B. a put option
C. a zero coupon bond
D. a subordinated debenture
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following international cash management methods is title for goods transferred for
intercompany sales?
A. Pooling
B. Internal factoring
C. Multilateral netting
D. Re-invoicing
Answer: D

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NO.3 A bank issues a letter of credit (L/C) and receives a request for payment under the L/C. The buyer
notifies the issuing bank not to make payment because there is a dispute over the quality of the
merchandise. However, the documents received fully comply with the terms of the L/C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The buyer may immediately return the merchandise and cancel the L/C.
B. The bank may delay payment until reimbursed by the buyer.
C. The bank may delay payment, provided the seller is notified of the dispute within three business days.
D. The bank must make payment and is entitled to immediate reimbursement from the buyer.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A put option on a company's stock has an exercise price of $20. On the delivery date, the stock is
trading at $24 per share. What should the investor who has paid $2 for the option do?
A. Not exercise the option and lose $2.
B. Not exercise the option and lose $6.
C. Exercise the option and gain $2.
D. Exercise the option and gain $4.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are important uses of variance analysis in comparing actual cash flows with
projected cash flows?
I. Identifying unanticipated changes in inventory
II. Enhancing short-term investment income
III. Validating a capital budget
IV. Identifying delays in accounts receivable collections
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following instruments simplifies the paperwork connected with loans that have multiple
advance features?
A. Master note
B. Banker's acceptance
C. Indenture agreement
D. Note purchase agreement
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company plans to issue additional equity within the next 12 months but needs to issue debt at a low
interest rate now. Which of the following instruments would BEST meet this objective?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Private placement issue
C. Preferred stock
D. Subordinated debentures
Answer: A

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NO.8 A French company conducts business strictly within the euro zone (the EMU). Which type of risk is of
LEAST concern?
A. Terrorist
B. Regulatory
C. Payment
D. Currency
Answer: D

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NO.9 The KEY decision in using CCD+ and CTX formats for B2B payments is:
A. whether to keep the payment and remittance information together or separate.
B. whether to use the Internet or an EDI spoke to transmit electronic payments.
C. whether to use an EDI or a UN/EDIFACT protocol to transfer the value electronically.
D. whether an evaluated receipts or paid-on-production technique is being used for the transfer.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is a characteristic of giro systems used in countries in Europe?
A. They operate through their postal systems.
B. They are primarily used for company-to-company payments.
C. They do not replace checks for the payment of bills.
D. They do not allow the use of direct debits and credits.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Account analysis statements should be examined for which of the following reasons?
I. To verify volumes processed
II. To determine daily cash shortages
III. To verify the accuracy of bank service charges
IV. To ensure that company-initiated transactions have occurred
A. I and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
Answer: B

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NO.12 In a typical swap transaction, two parties agree to exchange:
A. notional principal amounts.
B. amortization schedules.
C. maturity dates of obligations.
D. cash flows at future points in time.
Answer: D

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NO.13 An arrangement in which a borrower makes periodic payments to a separate custodial account that is
used to repay debt is known as a:
A. sinking fund
B. balloon payment
C. mortgage
D. zero-coupon bond
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company is based in the United States and has an operating subsidiary in Germany. With a stable
U.S. dollar and a depreciating euro, the company's cash manager may elect to:
A. pool excess funds in the United States to offset German deficits.
B. implement a dollar-based multilateral netting system.
C. start leading receivables from the German subsidiary.
D. establish a multicurrency account in the United States.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A call option for a company has an exercise price of $50. The stock is currently trading at $60. At
maturity, what should an investor who paid $3 for the option do?
A. Exercise the option and gain $7.
B. Exercise the option and gain $10.
C. Not exercise the option and lose $3.
D. Not exercise the option and lose $13.
Answer: A

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NO.16 An optimal concentration system minimizes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. administrative costs.
B. disbursement float.
C. excess balances.
D. transfer costs.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A Chicago meat processor is concerned about the volatility of pork belly prices. Which of the following
derivative products would be used to fix these prices within a given range?
A. Collar
B. Swap
C. Cap
D. Spot purchase
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which one of the following ties a user ¯ s p ri va t e key t o a use¡ ¯s pu b l ic key
A. A digital signature
B. A digital certificate
C. A digitized signature
D. A digital token
Answer: B

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NO.19 On the basis of the following exchange rates,
which of the following currency amounts has the greatest value in U.S. dollars?
A. C$750,000
B. ¡ê850,00
C. 900,000
D. £¤5,000,000
Answer: B

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NO.20 Netting is used by which of the following as a cross-border payment technique?
A. European giro providers
B. Foreign subsidiaries of a company
C. Counterparties in a letter of credit transaction
D. TARGET participants
Answer: B

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Exam Code: PEGACSA_v6.2
Exam Name: Pegasystems (Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Exam)
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Total Q&A: 341 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during
development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database?
(Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to
support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 (True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the
BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the
Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is
executed
Answer: D

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NO.7 Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with
Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer: D

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NO.10 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format?
(Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer: C

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NO.16 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external
application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a
______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape?
(Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.20 An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the
data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer: D

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Exam Code: CTAL-TM-UK
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager (CTAL-TM_UK))
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.3 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.6 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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