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Exam Code: 000-221
Exam Name: IBM (AIX 7 Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 229 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator needs to list/query the security attributes for the WPAR syswpar1. Which command
will do this?
A. Issecattr-W syswpar1
B. Issecconf-w syswpar1
C. Isattr-s syswpar1
D. Iswpar-S syswpar1
Answer: D

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NO.3 Before changing virtual memory settings, how can an administrator check the valid range of values for
a tuning parameter?
A. Iscfg-T
B. Isattr-R
C. vmtune-l
D. vmo-L
Answer: D

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NO.4 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the network. He
suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the adapter
is using.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a system with 6
physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator plans to duplicate the active rootvg on a given system to a spare disk that will be
migrated to newer hardware. Which flag on 'alt_disk_copy' must be used to reset user-defined device
configurations to defaults?
A. X
B. R
C. O
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.7 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase /var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition ¯:.
Answer: A

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NO.9 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the correct
Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the inconsistent fileset
levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How can an administrator enable the Workload Partitions Manager feature after AIX 7 has been
installed with the default options?
A. Change AIX License using chlicense -I command
B. Change AIX edition using chedition -e command
C. Change WPAR License using chwpar -I command
D. Change WPAR edition using chwpar-e command
Answer: B

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NO.11 What option will boot an LPAR directly from DVD media, without any user interaction required, when
starting the LPAR from the Hardware Management Console (HMC)?
A. Normal
B. Diagnostic with default boot list
C. System management services
D. Open firmware OK prompt
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which TWO groups of actions will create a CDROM file system for device cd0 and mount this on /cdfs?
(Select 2)
A. cdutil-s-kcd0/cdfs mount /cdfs
B. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in file /etc/cdromd.conf startsrc -s cdromd cdmount cd0
C. Define cd0 mount point as /cdfs in /etc/filesystems as vfs type jfs2 mount /cdfs
D. crfs-vcdrfs-pro-d'cd0'-mVcdfs' mount /cdfs
E. mkfs-v/cdfs/dev/cd0 mount /cdfs
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which of the following is an AIX 7 Cluster Aware feature?
A. Cluster application load balancing
B. Cluster shared volume groups on the shared disk
C. Cluster IP addresses on the shared resource
D. Cluster configurations on the cluster repository disk
Answer: D

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NO.14 New change control procedures dictate that system maintenance windows be shown to each user after
logging into the system using ssh or telnet. Updating which file or files will accomplish this task?
A. The message of the day file
B. The user default attributes file
C. User and admin system alert files
D. The var daily message files
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which AIX command will display the virtual SCSI slot number that is the parent of hdisk0?
A. Isdev
B. Iscfg
C. Isattr
D. Ismap
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are key considerations when planning for Live Application Mobility?
A. The WPAR is an Application WPAR and both global environments are at the same AIX level
B. That the WPAR is checkpointable and both global environments are on the same subnet
C. The NFS services are running and applications are stopped
D. The NFS services are running and there is an HMC attached to both managed systems
Answer: B

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NO.17 AIX has been installed on an LPAR with 32 GB of memory. What should be checked first, before
increasing the paging space beyond the default 512MB?
A. The maximum memory attribute in the LPAR profile.
B. Quantity and size of hosted filesystems.
C. Disk device distribution and utilization.
D. Paging requirements of applications that will be hosted.
Answer: D

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NO.18 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command will
ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.19 The cfgmgr command appears to be taking an excessive time to complete. The administrator was able
to quit the command and return to the command prompt. The administrator does not have access to the
managing HMC and unable to check for any LED codes.
How else can the cause of the observed delay be determined?
A. Review the latest entry within /var/log/cfgdb.out.
B. Start the syslog daemon before re-issuing the command.
C. Re-issue the command with the W flag.
D. Initiate the ledmon command from a separate session, then re-issue cfgmgr.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates.?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal program
load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred firmware can
be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is shutdown and
restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will automatically
shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware contains
major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N08
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Streams Technical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which host tags are defined by Streams?
A. compile, execute
B. execution, build
C. build, run
D. compile, run
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which command gives the health status of the individual processing elements of a submitted Streams
job?
A. streamtool lsjobs
B. streamtool lspes
C. streamtool getresourcestate
D. streamtool getnsentry
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Streams Studio component displays output generated by running various streamtool commands?
A. Console
B. Error Log file
C. SPL Application Graph
D. Project Explorer
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is TRUE regarding InfoSphere Streams?
A. A stream is defined as an infinite sequence of tuples.
B. The tuples in a stream can be of different types.
C. A Processing Element (PE) can only contain a single operator.
D. An operator port can accept streams of different types as long as they are properly defined.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is CORRECT.?
A. A composite operator does not belong to any namespace.
B. All operators in a composite operator must belong to the same namespace.
C. Primitive operators all belong to the com.ibm.primitive name space.
D. It is always acceptable to use fully qualified operator names (i.e. names that include the namespace).
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N11
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between ____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture (CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.3 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-642
Exam Name: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)
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Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are: have a plan, be
proactive and fast, and __________________.
A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.3 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM (Midrange Storage Sales V1)
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Total Q&A: 174 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer needs approximately 800 TB of network attached storage for unstructured media files in a
single file system. Which of the following choices would be the best solution for this customer?
A. N3240
B. DCS3700
C. IBMSONAS
D. Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client has a file server with 100 TB of usable storage. The growth rate of the data is 50% per year. The
majority of the data rapidly becomes inactive data and is not frequently accessed. The customer would
like to implement a solution that would automatically migrate the inactive data to a less expensive disk.
Which solution would meet the customer's requirements?
A. DS8800
B. DS3524 Express
C. XIV system Gen3
D. Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is running out of floor space on their data center using an aging EMC DMX.
They are a loyal EMC customer but the CIO is willing to have a quick discussion with IBM.
What IBM storage efficiency technologies should be discussed to address their floor space issue?
A. Flash copy and replication
B. Tape automation and LTO tape
C. Storage virilization and thin provisioning
D. Automated tiering and external virealization
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is looking to consolidate multiple heterogeneous SAN islands. To do this, what must the
customer consider first?
A. Single management interface
B. Creating a singular SAN fabric
C. Picking a singular vendor and storage platform
D. Storage tiering with automatic hot spot detection
Answer: B

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NO.5 What IBM tool is most appropriate to simulate scenarios to meet customer response time
requirements?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. TCOnow! for Disk
D. ProtecTIER Capacity Planner
Answer: A

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NO.6 Availability
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4
Answer: C

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2.Customer has two datacenters 1000 km apart, and wishes to perform disaster recovery across a small
set of disks (less than 10 TB).
What is likely to be the most costly part of this solution over a three year period.?
A. Switch and replication hardware charges
B. Disk storage hardware and warranty costs
C. Storage administration and support costs
D. Line charges from telecommunications vendors
Answer: D

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3.Using the IBM One Voice Whiteboard Presentation as a reference, the initial discovery of a customer's
IT platforms, their use cases and overall goals, incorporating IBM best practices, virtualization and data
protection to gain greater storage efficiency, this customer is being driven toward________.
A. More on the floor.
B. Workload optimization.
C. Data in the right place.
D. Correct staffing levels.
Answer: B

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4.A customer with POWER7 servers running mission critical DB2 applications in a stock market
transaction application have data centers at 2000 km distance. They need near zero recovery time. Which
of the following is the appropriate solution for this customer?
A. DS3500 with Metro Mirror
B. N series with Flash Cache
C. DS8800 with Global Mirror
D. Storwize V7000 with TPC for Replication
Answer: C

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NO.7 Growth

NO.8 A customer is currently running a large, multiple server Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 6
environment with DS5000. The sales specialist believes the storage sales opportunity can best be met
with a Storwize V7000, but some of the customer's IT operations staff has concerns about implementation
of the Storwize V7000 in the existing environment.
Which of the following should the sales specialist be prepared to discuss FIRST to convince the IT staff to
support the proposal?
A. Upgrade and warranty options
B. Overall cost of the Storwize V7000 solution
C. Storwize V7000 power and space planning requirements
D. Multipathing options, and server and storage migration
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has an IBM TS3310 configuration with LTO-4 technology that is out of capacity. They
currently use 100 LTO-4 cartridges which are full, and will need to store an additional 100 TB.
If they switch to LTO-5, how many LTO-5 cartridges would they need to buy? Assume the existing data
from the LTO-4 cartridges will be rewritten onto LTO-5 cartridges.
A. 50
B. 80
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.10 The sales team is discussing the Storwize V7000 with the customer. The customer has asked about the
software features of the Storwize V7000.
Which of the Storwize V7000 software features are available at an additional cost?
A. Easy Tier, FlashCopy
B. FlashCopy,External Virtualization
C. Metro/Global Mirror,Thin Provisioning
D. External Virtualization,Metro/Global Mirror
Answer: D

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NO.11 TCOnow! for Disk provides what value?
A. Provides the CIO with an ROI comparison
B. Compares speeds and feeds of disk storage systems
C. Analysis of a 'head to head' comparison of disk storage solutions
D. Compares features of Storage Systems advanced functions and software
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two of the following are examples of a company's legal need to comply with data retention?
1. Cost

NO.13 Risk

NO.14 Which of the following are supported host interface types on the Storwize V7000?
A. 6 Gbps SAS,4 Gbps iSCSI and 8 Gbps FC
B. 1 Gbps iSCSI, 3 Gbps SAS and 8 Gbps FC
C. 8,4,and 2 Gbps FC, 1 and 10 Gbps iSCSI
D. 20 Gbps InfiniBand, 8 Gbps FC and 10 Gbps iSCSI
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer has an existing IBM System Storage N6040 and is requesting a replication license to fail
over workload to a secondary N series device in the event of a disaster.
Which software product will address the customer's requirement?
A. SnapLock
B. FlexClone
C. SnapMirror
D. SnapRestore
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-702
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Developer)
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The logging parameter within \}CubeProperties is designated by a "Yes" or "No" for each cube.
What does this define?
A. Data changes to the TM1 cubes logged into the tm1s.log file
B. cubepropertiesdataloggedintothetm1server.log
C. dimensionupdatesloggedintothetm1audit.log
D. userpermissionsloggedtothetm1server.log
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are the elements of a rule?
A. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, Terminator, and Sequence Indicator
B. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Priority Flag
C. Area Definition, Qualifier, Formula, and Terminator
D. Area Definition, Formula, Terminator, and Priority Flag
Answer: C

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NO.3 Cross-Cube Feeder statements will result in a Cube Dependency relationship between the Dependent
Cube (containing the feeder) and the Base Cube (the target cube of the Feeder from the Dependent Cube)
if the Feeding cells contain data at Server startup or if initially null at server startup, the feeding cells are
subsequently updated during the server session.
Which statement describes the relationship between the cubes having the Cube Dependency
relationship?
A. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the cache of the Base Cube.
B. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the cache of the Dependent Cube.
C. Cell value updates to the Dependent Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
D. Cell value updates to the Base Cube will invalidate the Cube Dependency.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three parameters create a view extract of a cube either manually or when using Turbolntegrator?
(Choose three.)
A. Skip consolidated values.
B. Skip an ancestor of a specified element.
C. Skip zero/blank values.
D. Skip values greater than a specified numeric value.
E. Skip the eighth element in a dimension.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 The customer is experiencing performance issues with threads blocking as shown in the TM1
Operations Console.
Which setting within the tmls.cfg file improves writer response time by removing lock contention resulting
from concurrent cube data access?
A. AllowSeparateNandCRules=T
B. Parallellnteraction=T
C. UseStargateForRules=T
D. PersistentFeeders=T
Answer: B

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NO.6 An international enterprise has planners in European, Asian, and North American regions. The
enterprise wants to have planners in each region enter cube data into the local regional TM1 server but
report globally on a daily basis from a single enterprise-reporting server located in Canada. The
enterprise wants to integrate the cube data from the different regions into a single reporting server in
Canada.
Which method accomplishes this goal?
A. Use the TM1 rules to push data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
B. Use the TM1 rules to pull data from each regional server into the Canadian reporting server.
C. UsetheTM1 replication/synchronization in the Canadian server to pull data from the regional servers.
D. Use the TM1 replication/synchronization in the regional servers to push data to the Canadian server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a Turbolntegrator process, you need to create a cube structure before loading data into it. In which
tab would you create the cube?
A. Epilog
B. Metadata
C. Data
D. Parameters
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three are typically stored within a TM1 control object.? (Choose three.)
A. A list of TM1 users
B. TM1 system errors
C. Data required by the TM1 server to perform a driver-based calculation
D. TM1 object-level security permissions
E. Statistical performance data about the TM1 server
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.9 You want to improve one TM1 cube by adding Skipcheck and Feeder statements to a Rules file. Which
statement is correct?
A. The addition of rule-calculated cells to a cube will cause reduced consumption of RAM.
B. The data integrity of consolidated cells will improve.
C. The performance of views containing rule-calculated cells will improve.
D. Cross cube rule statements will be no longer be ignored.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the entries in the tm1server.log shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The product dimension has been updated.
B. The process Update_Product_Dimension has not created an error log.
C. The process Update_Product_Dimension has no parameters.
D. The chore Scheduledjmport has completed.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N19
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Sales Mastery Test v3)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Carl wants his customer to experience SmartCloud for Social Business but the customer does not have
an account. What must Carl do to provide access to SmartCloud for Social Business for his customer.?
A. Carl can assign the customer a guest account with a temporary password for 30 days.
B. Carl can provide the customer with a SmartCloud Connections profile that enables creation of
temporary account for 60 days.
C. Carl can invite the customer through SmartCloud for Social Business which will send a link for his
customer to join as a guest user.
D. There is nothing Carl can do without creating a SmartCloud for Social Business account for the
customer within Carl's SmartCloud company organization.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Taylor, a paid subscriber to SmartCloud Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer who
does not have an account. How would Taylor invite his customer to join?
A. Taylor's customer could not participate in the meeting since the customer is a guest. Taylor could
record the meeting and send a link to the video recording.
B. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID and when the customer clicked the URL
link, the customer would be prompted to register. Once the customer has registered, they can participate
in the meeting.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask his customer to visit the
SmartCloud for Social Business website to enter the meeting ID and their name in order to join.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for a guest to be registered. Once registration is complete,
the customer can join the meeting by visiting the SmartCloud for Social Business website, authenticating
with their credentials and entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What level (if any) of anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available to SmartCloud iNotes users?
A. Anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available for Administrators to provide scheduled scans for
viruses and spam.
B. The user must purchase his/her own spam and virus protector because SmartCloud for Social
Business is in the cloud.
C. Full anti-spam and anti-virus services are included with SmartCloud for Social Business.
D. Basic protection is included and advanced protection with additional end user configuration options are
available.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the default settings for newly created Communities?
A. All new Communities will be created with the Files widget to upload and share files with the community.
B. All new Communities will have customized templates to create sub-communities.
C. All new Communities will be created with the Bookmarks widget to share links with the community.
D. Communities do not have default settings and the owner must create the settings.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Sarah's SmartCloud for Social Business account was enabled with Skype integration by her
Administrator. What is a requirement to access this SmartCloud for Social Business Integrated
Application?
A. The Skype client is required.
B. The SkypeOut setting must be enabled within SmartCloud for Social Business for calling other Skype
users.
C. This is an integrated application, therefore, the Skype client is not required.
D. Her Administrator must also enable VoIP to connect with SmartCloud for Social Business contacts.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-246
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What provides the capability to rapidly deliver new web concepts or delineated brand sites via asset
sharing on a common platform?
A. Personalization
B. Social integration
C. Partnership with affiliates
D. Extended sites
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following Smarter Commerce Offerings is a core part of delivering a customer
buy-online, pick-up in store (BOPIS) capability?
A. Social Analytics.
B. Distributed Order Management.
C. Logistics Management.
D. Customer Self Service.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You can create a powerful self-service experience for the customer using?
A. The IBM Customer Experience Suite
B. The IBM Commerce Framework
C. The IBM Enterprise Service Process Manager
D. The IBM Customer Service System
Answer: A

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NO.4 The web marketing continuous optimization platform can drive which of the following capabilities?
A. Optimize paid search advertising.
B. Automate customer recommendations based on LIVE profile.
C. Target through online advertisements based on interaction history.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Smarter Commerce capabilities are packaged and delivered as what?
A. A single, high-value, shrink-wrapped, solution for commerce.
B. Middleware components requiring additional business function software.
C. Software, hardware, and services to deliver specific business processcapabilities which support each
phase of the commerce cycle.
D. A simple monolithic application for each phase of the commerce cycle.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Smarter Commerce is focused on which of the following 3 dimensions with respect to the customer?
A. Customer potential, customer transaction capture, customer fulfillment.
B. Customer insight, customer value strategy, customer & partner engagement.
C. Customer demographics, customer geography, customer affluence.
D. Customer returns, customer purchases, customer order changes.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What can AdTarget do?
A. Monitor all advertisements watched on cable television
B. Working withaffiliates, target Internet ads without email
C. Utilize You Tubeto more effectively deliver adcontent
D. Force customers to watch the entireInternetadbefore entering websites
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are Smarter Commerce Buy
Offerings focused on?
A. Visibility and optimization in the supply chain.
B. Customer buying patterns.
C. Effective 1:1 marketing to facilitate customer purchase decisions.
D. Buy online, pick-up in the store (BOPIS).
Answer: A

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NO.9 Segmentation, offer management, interaction history, real-time behavioral targeting, and contact
optimization are examples of capabilities delivered as part of what?
A. Data mining.
B. Social platform.
C. Central decisioning.
D. Customer clustering.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In order to effectively implement ___________ you must be able to aggregate line items from individual
orders to send to suppliers and then separate them out again for customer fulfillment.
A. store operations
B. cross-channel order management
C. social marketing
D. supply chain visibility
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-242
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS (Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS (Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS (Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task information.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-502
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Sales Professional - v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-189
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V7.5.1, BPM Analysis)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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