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Exam Code: 250-402
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 133 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.11 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

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NO.14 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.2 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.4 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.5 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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NO.6 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 250-252
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.8 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.10 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

Symantec   250-252   250-252

NO.12 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.14 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-316
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2012)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

Symantec   250-316   250-316 questions   250-316

NO.6 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

Symantec   250-316   250-316

NO.7 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

Symantec   250-316   250-316   250-316 answers real questions

NO.11 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.13 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.14 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-316 original questions   250-316   250-316

NO.15 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-155
Exam Name: Symantec (Clearwell eDiscovery Platform 7.x Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 173 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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Exam Code: 510-033
Exam Name: Sybase (Sybase Replication Server Administrator Pro Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following tables contain the Replication Server exception log?(Choose 3)
A. rs_systext
B. rs_excepthdr
C. rs_msgs
D. rs_locater
E. rs_exceptscmd
F. rs_recovery
Answer: ABE

Sybase   510-033 braindump   510-033

NO.2 The admin who, sqm command is executed at the Replication Server and displays the following output.
Info First Seg.Block Last Seg.Block
Next Read
133:0 ReplicateDS.RDB 4.3 4.3
4.4
Which of the following are correct? (Choose 2)
A. The queue is empty and is ready for new transactions.
B. The queue is behind and contains lots of transactions that need to be processed.
C. The queue is full and the stable device should be enlarged.
D. The queue is an inbound queue.
E. The queue is an outbound queue.
Answer: AE

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033 exam

NO.3 What action must be taken to properly affect a change to a RepAgent configuration parameter in a
running Replication Server System?
A. The RepAgent connection to the primary database must be suspended before a change is made to the
parameter and then the connection must be resumed.
B. The RepAgent thread must be stopped before a change is made to the parameter and then restarted.
C. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent connection to the primary database
must be suspended then be resumed before the modification is applied.
D. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent thread must be stopped and restarted
before the modification is applied.
Answer: D

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033   510-033

NO.4 A route between two Replication Servers represents?(Choose 2)
A. one way data flow.
B. a connection between a Replication Server and a replicate dataserver.
C. one outbound queue that can map to several Replication Server system queues.
D. a connection between a Replication Server and a primary dataserver.
Answer: AC

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033 test

NO.5 Which of the following thread types is responsible for serializing transactions?
A. DIST
B. DSI
C. RSI
D. SQM
E. SQT
Answer: E

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NO.6 Given the following table and stored procedure:
create table t (a int)
create procedure p
@param int
as
insert t values (@param)
A Replication Definition exists for table 't'. Table 't' and stored procedure 'p' are both marked for replication.
What will be replicated when the following code is executed without errors:
begin transaction
insert t values (100)
execute p 101
commit
execute p 102
A. One 'execute' operation is replicated
B. One 'insert' and one 'execute' operations are replicated
C. One 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
D. Three 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following are TRUE about a RepAgent? (Choose 2)
A. Moves the primary truncation point
B. Is an Adaptive Server Enterprise thread
C. Applies transactions to the replicate database
D. Reads the primary database transaction log
E. Maintains referential integrity
Answer: BD

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NO.8 A Request Function requires which of the following?
A. Function Replication Definition
B. Replication Definition
C. Subscription
D. Publication
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following converts transactions forwarded to Replication Server into LTL (Log Transfer
Language)?
A. maint user
B. RepAgent
C. primary user
D. rssd maint user
Answer: B

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NO.10 The command admin config is used to display information related to which parameters below?(Choose
3)
A. route
B. subscription
C. logical connection
D. physical connection
E. Replication Definition
Answer: ACD

Sybase certification   510-033   510-033   510-033

NO.11 Which RSSD counter table holds the description of a sampling period?
A. rs_statcounters
B. rs_statdetail
C. rs_statrun
D. rs_subscriptions
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following are TRUE regarding the rs_ticket_report stored procedure located in a replicate
database? (Choose 3)
A. Must be modified to place its output into a results table
B. Is used to update the rs_ticket counter
C. To save the output of the procedure, a table must be created in the replicate database
D. Reports on every change of data to the replicate database
E. Accepts timestamp and byte information for transactions
Answer: ACE

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are NOT true about stored procedure replication?
A. Request functions are replicated from the primary to the replicate database.
B. Use sp_setrepproc to mark a stored procedure for replication.
C. Request functions cannot be executed in a Warm Standby environment.
D. Request functions do not require a subscription.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Where are function Replication Definitions created for request functions?
A. Primary database
B. Primary Replication Server
C. Replicate database
D. Replicate Replication Server
Answer: B

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NO.15 In order to store output from the admin stats command for further analysis, you must
A. set up a repository table in the RSSD.
B. turn off the RSSD RepAgent.
C. run admin stats with the keyword ave
D. increase the size of the SQT.
E. run admin stats with the keyword isplay
Answer: C

Sybase   510-033   510-033   510-033

NO.16 Which errorlog code indicates a message is reporting a stopped thread?
A. E
B. F
C. I
D. H
E. N
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statements are TRUE about replicating tables with encrypted columns in ASE?
A. Replication Server automatically generates separate column encryption keys for the replicate
database.
B. The DBA must manually create the same set of column encryption keys in all databases in the
replication system.
C. Replication Server replicates the encrypted data and the column encryption keys to the replicate
databases without decryption.
D. Replication Server replicates encrypted data as plaintext, so SSL is required to protect the data.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following are TRUE about request functions? (Choose 2)
A. A function replicate definition is needed for both the primary Replication Server and the replicate
Replication Server.
B. A function Replication Definition is created in the Primary Replication Server.
C. Request functions do not use subscriptions.
D. Request functions do not have to be marked for replication.
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which table in the master database contains the secondary truncation point?
A. sysprocesses
B. syslogs
C. spt_values
D. syslogshold
Answer: D

Sybase answers real questions   510-033   510-033

NO.20 Which of the following operations can NOT be replicated? (Choose 2)
A. Drop table
B. Reorg rebuild
C. Slow bcp
D. Truncate table
E. Update statistics
Answer: BE

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Exam Name: SUN (Sun Certified JCAPS Integrator)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What Java CAPS elements below are required for code to be Executed and Monitored in
Production? 1. Enterprise Manager 2. Enterprise Designer 3. Repository 4. UDDI Server 5. Domain
6. An .ear file
A.3, 2, 6 & 5 only.
B.4 to discover services, 3, 1 & 5.
C.4 to discover services, 6, 5 & 1.
D.1, 5 & 6 only.
E.3 to discover services, 5, 6 & 1.
Correct:C

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NO.2 Java CAPS Documentation can be accessed: (Select all that apply) _____
A.by uploading the docs to the Repository and viewing them through the Enterprise Manager
B.by decompressing the capsDocs.sar file to a directory of your choice
C.in the installed tree structure on the Repository
D.from the help screen dialog box
E.from the Documentation CD
F.from the docs.sun.com website
Correct:A C F

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NO.3 During installation, the ProductList.sar file can be changed to update:_____
A.the components available to upload
B.the components available to download
C.the installed components
D.the registered components
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which of the following add-ons are required when attempting to exchange messages with a JMS
Message Server external to Java CAPS?
A.the JMS eWay
B.the eGate API Kit
C.JMS Message Selectors
D.this can be done programmatically without additional products
Correct:B

SUN   310-502 study guide   310-502   310-502

NO.5 To utilize a component from one Project in another, you can: (Select all that apply.) _____
A.export the component from the source Project and import it to the target Project
B.copy the component from the source Project and paste it to the target Project
C.include the remote component in the Deployment Profile of the target Project
D.drag-and-drop the component onto the target Projects Connectivity Map
E.you can not share components among Projects
Correct:B D

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NO.6 What is the difference between undeploy and disable in the Enterprise Manager?
A.Undeploy temporarily stops the ear, Disable removes it from the domain.
B.Undeploy removes the ear from eManager, Disable doesnt.
C.Undeploy removes the ear file from the Domain, Disable stops it temporarily.
D.None of the Above.
Correct:C

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NO.7 How can a Business Process be configured so that it is capable of responding to more than one
type of error at a time?
A.BPEL does not support the ability to catch multiple exceptions.
B.Create a scope and drag down as many Catch Named Exception elements as needed.
C.Create a catch block to handle as many exceptions as necessary.
D.Select Multi option in the Business Process error handling properties dialog.
Correct:B

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NO.8 In order to have more than one activity executing concurrently in a Business Process, which
eInsight modeling element should be used?
A.the Event-Based Decision element
B.the Reply modeling element
C.the Join modeling element
D.the Flow modeling element
Correct:D

SUN   310-502 study guide   310-502   310-502

NO.9 Which Java CAPS component determines the fields within a message that can be accessed by a
Java Collaboration?
A.Business Process
B.Connectivity Map
C.Object Type Definition
D.Activity
Correct:C

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NO.1 What should be included in a good problem/opportunity statement?
A.A description of the causes of the problem
B.A statement of the project improvement goal
C.An assignment of responsibility for the problem
D.The severity of the problem
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a continuous measure?
A.Total time required to close a deal
B.Count of the number of closed deals from new customers
C.Day of the week a deal is closed
D.Type of deal closed
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which is NOT a key objective of "Mobilizing Commitment"?
A.Critical mass must be won over
B.Employees know exactly how their jobs will change
C.Key stakeholders support the change
D.Potential sources of resistance are identified
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which of the following are NOT common pitfalls to the Sun Shot process?
A.Multiple champions
B.Too little time allotted
C.Poor action item accountability
D.Weak sponsorship
Correct:A

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NO.5 What is the best use for the ANOVA test?
A.To complete a least squares regression fit for more than one data set
B.To determine if several samples belong to the same population relative to their mean
C.To determine the variance of a non-normal data set
D.To compare data set normality
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which is the best tool to show a quantitative comparison of the frequency of occurrence for
different failure modes?
A.QFD
B.Individuals chart
C.Pareto chart
D.Scatter diagram
Correct:C

SUN exam   310-600   310-600 demo   310-600 exam prep

NO.7 Which tool is best for illustrating possible causes for an effect?
A.QFD
B.Fishbone diagram
C.Process flowchart
D.Histogram
Correct:B

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NO.8 What is the purpose of a pilot?
A.To analyze a process and determine the source of defects
B.To test a solution on a small or limited scale
C.To implement a compromised solution when true consensus cannot be reached
D.To collect baseline data from an existing process
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which statement guarantees no defects?
A.Z = 6 sigma
B.The part has been modified so that it physically cannot be put together incorrectly
C.All sampled data points are within the upper and lower specification
D.The data histogram is "centered"
Correct:B

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NO.10 In two months, there are 200 defects in 40 units processed. If each unit has 25 opportunities,
what is the process DPMO?
A.200,000
B.400,000
C.800,000
D.1,000,000
Correct:A

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NO.11 CAP and DMAIC are useful together since:
A.The focus of DMAIC is collecting data and the focus of CAP is to make solutions more sustainable
B.The focus of CAP is collecting data and the focus DMAIC is influencing people to build acceptance
C.The focus of CAP is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of DMAIC is to make solutions
sustainable
D.The focus of DMAIC is to find the best solution for a problem and the focus of CAP is to make solutions
sustainable
Correct:D

SUN exam   310-600   310-600 demo   310-600 exam prep

NO.12 Calculation of DPO requires knowledge of:
A.The total number of defects and the total number of units
B.Only the total number of defects
C.The total number of defects, the total number of units, the number of opportunities per unit and the
length of the time period studied
D.The total number of defects, the total number of units and the number of opportunities per unit
Correct:D

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NO.13 Which tool is used to evaluate process variation over time?
A.Pie chart
B.Scatter plot
C.Individuals chart
D.Pareto Chart
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with control charts?
A.They demonstrate process performance relative to customer specifications
B.They demonstrate stability and predictability of a process over time
C.They show parameter performance, mean, and control limits
D.They offer early warning of possible problems
Correct:A

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NO.15 Which one of the following statements about internal and external customers is true?
A.Process output that is not paid for only goes to internal customers
B.External customers should not be privy to project details when working on joint projects
C.Requirements of internal customers will drive more improvement than requirements of external
customers
D.Internal customers are fellow associates who need the process output to carry out their work
Correct:D

SUN exam   310-600   310-600 demo   310-600 exam prep

NO.16 Which statement is a good guideline for brainstorming?
A.Keep the list of ideas manageable by allowing each participant a set number of contributions
B.Establish the objective prior to the brainstorming session
C.Focus on idea quality, rather than quantity
D.Provide a familiar venue for the process
Correct:B

SUN exam   310-600   310-600 demo   310-600 exam prep

NO.17 What is a good use for hypothesis testing during the Analyze phase?
A.To determine the current process capability
B.To determine optimum process capability parameters
C.To confirm the validity of a suspected important factor
D.To provide a comparison of CTQs to root causes
Correct:C

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NO.18 A project charter should be:
A.Treated by the team as a fixed contract to be changed only by approval of 51% of the team
B.Treated as a living document which will evolve as new information is discovered
C.Written in precise technical language
D.A brief document 2-3 pages in length
Correct:B

SUN exam   310-600   310-600 demo   310-600 exam prep

NO.19 A factorial 2-level DOE does NOT:
A.Confirm possible critical Xs
B.Confirm design parameter impacts on Ys
C.Confirm causes identified by hypothesis tests
D.Confirm best robust design
Correct:D

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